I read this paper on the application of the TCM model to gambling consumption and found it very interesting and enlightening. Thank you to the authors for this. However, as I was reading it, one question that kept nagging at me was how does income or wealth impact this model? A reasonable assumption is that for excessively wealthy individuals, this analysis or model would not necessarily hold. The authors do address this as a limitation in their discussion in that income data was not available to factor into this analysis. In the absence of income data or to account for individuals in the population who are exceedingly wealthy, would employing a survey base screener such as PGSI or NODS in tandem with TCM help strengthen the TCM analysis and understanding?
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